Huh, are 1/2 and 1/4 and such infinite? I think they are finite, unlike pi for example.

Besides, if you have an infinite amount of numbers in between two (finite or infinite) numbers, then wouldn't adding them all together result in an infinite number as well? edit: answer to this would be "yes they would be infinite", but with this paradox each new number is half the amount of the last one.

Cheers

Last edited by PHeMoX; 09/14/07 21:27.
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