Thanks jcl.

You've mentioned time again. Please clarify: Whether the doubling occurs over 2 months or over 2 years, the same 41% must remain? Or does time enter the calculation in some way that makes the % different for one or the other?

Still don't understand why it's OK to Test one way and Trade differently. That seems to violate a fundamental rule of Testing, doesn't it?

For the same level of risk, Z4/Z5 seem to have a clear advantage in terms of profit removal, a.k.a. income, true?

Thanks.