Hi

As it is written in the tutorial, in the Hedge = 5, the oldest position is closed when a position in the oposite direction is open.
But lets see the next situation with 3 open long positions:
Asset____Type___Date____Lot____Enter_Price____Current_Price_____Profit
EUR/USD___L_____01/..____1_______1.12____________1.14________200 => This is the oldest position
EUR/USD___L_____02/..____1_______1.13____________1.14________100
EUR/USD___L_____03/..____1_______1.15____________1.14________-100 => This is a lossing operation

Now... the price was rising for three days in a row and in the last day it reached 1.15 but the price started to fall again and it is at 1.14 when a short position is as well open as following:
The new position is like:
Asset____Type___Date____Lot____Enter_Price____Current_Price___Profit
EUR/USD___S_____04/..____1_______1.14____________1.14______

Now...if hedge=5, the olstest position of 01/ is closed. It is a winning operation. Why do not close the losing trade instead?. That one with -100? I mean the last long operation in this example.

I notice this because my strategy opened three long positions during a rising price period but the last operation was too risky since the price was rising for too long and then the price started falling.

Or maybe I am just missing something in here

Why closing the losing position - you don't want to take the profit?

Seriously, I do not see in which way it matters which of 3 positions you close, as long as they are from the same asset. Psychologically, maybe.

So yes, I actually was missing something

I get it now. It is pyschological as you said.