i read it and didn't see any denial.

this is my interpretation of the passage, with a little bit of context on either end; show me where your interpretation differs so we can compare:

having been asked if He's the Christ, Jesus tells the Jews that He has already told them, and that He is the giver of eternal life, followed by "I and the Father are one" -- effectively [Jesus = God].

appalled by this claim to divinity, the Jews prepare to stone Him, so Jesus responds by asking which good deed He did (apparently the original Greek words refer more to the quality of the deeds than their miraculous nature) that warrants His stoning. they respond that His claim to be God is blasphemy, and so He must be stoned.

Jesus responds by pointing out that the Scripture refers to worldly rulers as 'gods', and if they can have that claim, how much more can the one the Father set apart (presumably as more than merely a worldly ruler)! He asks if He's being blasphemous by claiming to be God's Son and really has the works to support it, or perhaps more-so that He is not un-Godly in anything He does. "...the Father is in me, and I in the Father" (i would've thought a clear reference to His divinity).

having heard this, the Jews tried to punish Him anyway (presumably still believing He was claiming to be God), but Jesus escaped.

julz