Originally Posted by jcl
It would be probably better to use the preceding profit peak at the time of the drawdown instead
Of course, this is its definition ( https://www.investopedia.com/terms/m/maximum-drawdown-mdd.asp)
Dividing by the total gp (at the end of a simulation) just has no meaning, in any case.
Without re-investment, maxDD reporting in % - IMHO - should be omitted altogether.