Hello again,

with Fill=0 the results are similar but Why I have to use Fill=0 if is for special purposes ??? .
The tutorial says :

1 Realistic order filling (default). Trades open or close at the current price quote plus extra Slippage. When Slippage is set to 0, this mode simulates a latency-free connection to the market that immediately reacts on any price quote

I have tested and Really with Fill=1 and barPeriod different is very different the results…....maybe have I use Fill=0 for my backtests ? This is the part that I can't understand…..Realistic =Fill 1 ...but different results with barPerdiod and Fill=0 special purposes but results similar.


Another question is if I use a TMF the exit trade must be the same if the Price open is the same independtly of the barPerdiod,..this is ok, true ??

Thanks in advance