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Its all quite subjective, but in the greater idea of whether or not morals are absolute, American slavery, murder, and the nazis are relevant. I could just use the more general use of the word 'murder', but then they might say that no culture universally accepts murder. Then I'd give the example of hitler and we'd be right back where we started.

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This doesn't make much sense at all. Again you are claiming that the 'nazi-germany culture universally accepted murder', and you know this is nonsense. Infact, Matt told you this, but you seem to deliberately have missed it, or?

What exactly are you trying to find out through this thread? Like Doug said, what's the 'question'?

I think the debate has long ended, since you think there is something as 'moral absolutism', which quite clearly doesn't exist. And we think there is indeed moral relativism, infact the hitler example you keep bringing up is a good example of this, but would be flawed in a way, since you generalize to easy and don't see how it's relative. Not every german was wrong in that war you know...

And yep, an often heard 'excuse' for the nazi behavior was indeed that someone from top-down gave orders and they just executed them.

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I said that the Greek practices seemed to have no ill effect on society, or most poeple who took part..I'm not saying WE should view it as right.

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